AWS DevOps Engineer Professional (DOP-C02) - Full Practice Exam 1

1. A build executes pull-request code from external contributors. The production deployment credential is currently available in every build. Which change best limits the risk of untrusted build execution?
2. A canary shows normal HTTP success but checkout completions fall. Which monitoring choices best protect the release decision? Select 2 answers.
3. A central Config aggregator shows noncompliant resources in member accounts. The team assumes the aggregator automatically deploys remediation rules everywhere. Which distinction is correct?
4. A central operations account must view supported CloudWatch telemetry from several member accounts without copying long-lived credentials into dashboards. Which capability should it evaluate?
5. A central pipeline deploys into a separate production account. Encrypted artifacts are in the tool account S3 bucket. Deployment fails when the production action accesses the artifact. Which design should be verified?
6. A CloudFormation update is UPDATE_ROLLBACK_FAILED because an external change prevented resource restoration. The underlying issue is corrected. What should happen next?
7. A company manually creates golden AMIs and distributes untested images to several Regions. Which managed workflow should it evaluate?
8. A compliance dashboard reports success because unsupported resources were silently excluded from evaluation. What should the platform team change?
9. A Config rule triggers remediation using a Systems Manager Automation document, but the runbook fails with AccessDenied on its resource changes. What should be inspected?
10. A container build requires privileged mode for its chosen tooling, but unrelated builds use the same highly privileged project role. What should the DevOps engineer do?
11. A cross-account deployment consumes SSE-KMS artifacts from a central bucket. Which authorization layers should the engineer verify? Select 2 answers.
12. A custom metric uses a unique request ID and customer ID on every publication. Time-series count and cost rise sharply. Which changes are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
13. A database password rotates successfully, but some long-running services keep stale cached credentials. Which practices support reliable secret rotation? Select 2 answers.
14. A deployment diagnostic process records complete environment variables and tokens in logs. Which changes improve the security of operational evidence? Select 2 answers.
15. A deployment incident has a documented rollback trigger, but engineers debate ad hoc actions while impact grows. Which operational preparation would most improve response consistency?
16. A deployment role can pass any IAM role to CloudFormation and configure arbitrary resources. The team wants to limit privilege escalation through deployment. Which change is appropriate?
17. A feature release is technically deployed but should be enabled gradually and disabled quickly if business error rates rise. Which control is most suitable?
18. A fleet must install approved patches in a maintenance window while limiting simultaneous disruption and stopping further rollout after excessive failures. Which controls are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
19. A fleet writes structured JSON logs with deployment_id and error_code. An incident team needs error counts for the newest release over the last 30 minutes. Which tool is the most direct fit?
20. A member-account deployment role has an IAM allow, but an applicable SCP explicitly denies the requested action. Which result should the pipeline handle?
21. A multi-AZ Auto Scaling service passes EC2 checks even when the application is hung. ALB marks affected targets unhealthy, but the group does not replace them. Which change is appropriate?
22. A multi-step repair can time out after changing one resource but before changing another. The team needs a recoverable partial-failure path. Which design is best?
23. A platform team must deploy a standard monitoring stack to every account in selected Organizations OUs, including newly added accounts. Which capability best fits?
24. A private container repository contains images used in production. The release process must evaluate known package vulnerabilities without assuming a pushed image is automatically safe. Which approach fits?
25. A production release requires an independent reviewer before deployment. The pipeline currently treats an AI-generated approval comment as sufficient. Which change best enforces the requirement?
26. A production stack contains a critical database. The team wants to restrict accidental update actions against that resource while permitting approved changes through a controlled process. Which feature should it evaluate?
27. A queue worker can fail after an external transaction succeeds but before message acknowledgment. The team needs safe recovery and visibility of repeatedly failing messages. Which design is best?
28. A recovery policy needs minimal data loss and a short recovery time after a regional failure. The proposed solution keeps only nightly backups and no tested restore procedure. What should the engineer conclude?
29. A regional disaster-recovery procedure promotes a secondary database while the original writer may still be reachable to some clients. Which controls reduce the risk of conflicting writes? Select 2 answers.
30. A release pipeline builds separately for staging and production using floating dependency versions. Staging tests pass, but production behaves differently. Which changes best connect test evidence to the deployed release? Select 2 answers.
31. A remediation event may be delivered twice. The action opens a support case and changes a resource setting. How should the runbook handle repeated delivery?
32. A remediation runbook starts successfully but fails when it attempts a required resource update. Logs show AccessDenied. Which first investigation fits?
33. A remediation system depends on events reaching its queue. The rule exists, but destination failures occur silently. What should operations monitor?
34. A security audit requires integrity validation for CloudTrail log files stored in S3. Which capability should be evaluated?
35. A security team supplies a set of Config rules and supported remediation actions that should deploy together as one standard collection. Which feature fits?
36. A service has excellent average latency but frequent severe delays for a small fraction of users. Which monitoring change is appropriate?
37. A service reads a newly written S3 object from a cross-Region replica immediately after the source write. Some reads miss the object briefly. What should the design account for?
38. A sparse error metric is emitted only when failures occur. Long quiet periods should be treated as nonbreaching rather than as failures. Which alarm behavior should be evaluated?
39. A stack uses a Secrets Manager dynamic reference. The database secret rotates after deployment, but an application configuration value is not refreshed. Which assumption should be corrected?
40. A stateful resource must survive stack deletion and also preserve its old physical instance if a later update replaces it. Which attributes should be evaluated?
41. A stateless service has variable demand and should scale around average CPU utilization of 55%. The team does not want to maintain several manual threshold steps. Which policy is appropriate?
42. A team wants to test failure handling without uncontrolled production impact. Which practices support a useful resilience exercise? Select 2 answers.
43. A tested Systems Manager Automation runbook repairs a known service failure. It must start when a specific alarm enters ALARM and retain execution history. Which choices are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
44. A traditional RDS Multi-AZ DB instance fails over during an outage. Existing clients hold broken connections and cache the old address indefinitely. Which application behavior should be implemented?
45. After a consumer bug is fixed, operations wants to replay archived EventBridge events through the intended processing path. Which consideration is essential?
46. An alarm publishes to SNS, but a newly added email endpoint receives no alerts and the subscription is pending confirmation. What should operations verify?
47. An ALB service handles requests lasting up to two minutes. Planned target deregistration cuts them off after a short draining interval, even though instances remain running. Which control should be adjusted first?
48. An application spans APIs, Lambda, and downstream services. Aggregate error metrics are normal, but some requests are slow. Which evidence is most useful for identifying the latency path?
49. An Auto Scaling group has a new launch-template version but existing instances still run the old AMI. The team needs a controlled fleet replacement. Which steps are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
50. An EC2 application is failing from memory pressure, but standard EC2 monitoring shows only low CPU. Operations needs guest memory and filesystem utilization. Which approach is appropriate?
51. An EC2 CodeDeploy release increases errors after traffic reaches the new revision. Operations needs automatic mitigation and a usable prior release. Which practices support this? Select 2 answers.
52. An EC2 instance shows credible compromise indicators. The incident team needs containment and forensic evidence under its approved response plan. Which actions are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
53. An ECS service behind an ALB needs a replacement task set validated on a test listener before production traffic moves. The team uses an existing CodeDeploy deployment group. Which pattern is appropriate?
54. An EventBridge rule matches no events after the producer changes a nested field name. The target works when called manually. Which correction should be investigated first?
55. An existing Lambda deployment must expose a new version to a small traffic percentage, observe errors, and revert automatically if thresholds breach. Which release design best fits?
56. An existing pipeline deploys schema-changing revisions. Concurrent executions can finish out of order and install an older revision last. Which control should be evaluated?
57. An integration test suite modifies shared records and fails nondeterministically when builds overlap. Which testing change best improves reliability?
58. An operator manually changes a resource managed by CloudFormation. The team needs a report of supported property differences without applying another deployment. Which operation fits?
59. An organization centralizes audit logs from member accounts. Source administrators should not be able to erase the central history. Which controls support this? Select 2 answers.
60. An organization wants to ensure that production consumes only approved build outputs and can trace their origin. Which controls are appropriate? Select 2 answers.
61. Backup jobs succeed, but the organization has never verified complete service restoration within the recovery objective. Which practices provide stronger evidence? Select 2 answers.
62. Build, test, and deployment stages share one administrator role. The organization wants separation of duties and limited impact from a compromised build. Which change best fits?
63. Builds become faster with dependency caching, but a reused cache sometimes introduces incompatible libraries after dependency changes. Which cache strategy should be used?
64. Engineers use permanent shared access keys for production operations. The organization needs individually attributable short-lived access. Which approach should be evaluated?
65. EventBridge cannot deliver some events to a target despite retries. Operations must retain failed deliveries for investigation. Which feature should it configure?
66. Infrastructure reviews repeatedly miss prohibited public access settings. The team wants repeatable policy checks before templates reach production. Which approach is best?
67. Managed instances must apply a configuration document hourly, including new instances with Environment=Production. Which Systems Manager feature fits?
68. Pods need different AWS permissions, but all currently inherit an overly broad node role. Which workload-identity approach should be evaluated?
69. Several teams consume a shared infrastructure library. An unversioned change breaks existing applications. Which practices reduce future compatibility surprises? Select 2 answers.
70. SQS workers wait on external I/O, so CPU remains low while queue delay grows. Average processing duration is stable. Which target-tracking signal should be evaluated?
71. Staging and production share an artifact but use different API endpoints and secrets. Which configuration practice supports both repeatability and isolation?
72. The data platform requires TLS for S3 access while preserving intended AWS service delivery. Which bucket-policy control should be evaluated?
73. Two application versions overlap during a rolling deployment. The new version wants to rename a required database column immediately. Which migration approach best preserves rollback compatibility?
74. Two metric alarms represent related symptoms. Operations wants one notification only when both are in ALARM, while retaining individual alarm evaluation. Which feature fits?
75. Workers keep local checkpoints that must be uploaded before Auto Scaling termination. Cleanup may take several minutes. Which controls support graceful termination? Select 2 answers.

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